Why was the blind man born blind?

Many people argue that the man born blind, as described in John 9, was born blind in order to eventually be healed by Jesus. Refuting this view is really pretty straightforward; but it is equally understandable that Bible readers would draw such an incorrect view. The solution to the question is suggested by observing a little bit about what goes into translating Greek to English. But first, let us look at the particularly horrendous reaading from my otherwise favorite translation, the New Revised Standard Version:

John 9:1-4 (NRSV)
1 As he walked along, he saw a man blind from birth.
2 His disciples asked him, "Rabbi, who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind?"
3 Jesus answered, "Neither this man nor his parents sinned; he was born blind so that God's works might be revealed in him.
4 We must work the works of him who sent me while it is day; night is coming when no one can work."

What is a Bible student supposed to think? Verse 3 clearly says, "He was born blind so that God's works might be revealed in him!" Presumably, he lived with his blindness for at least 30 years predestined for this moment when Jesus would come along and heal him. The hidden problem here is that the words "he was born blind" was totally supplied by helpful translators. Sometimes, when the translators are trying to help, they do not help. They are only trying to make a word-for-word translation make better sense in English. The New American Standard Bible at least uses italics to show the reader what words were supplied.

John 9:3-4 (NASB)
3 Jesus answered, "It was neither that this man sinned, nor his parents; but it was so that the works of God might be displayed in him.
4 "We must work the works of Him who sent Me as long as it is day; night is coming when no one can work."

Another thing all translators must do for English readers is supply punctuation. The ancient Greek did not have punctuation. When the text was read out loud, as it was intended, the punctuation was supposed to be obvious to the listener.

Observe how NASB reads in English without the added words and with no punctuation:

Jesus answered neither this man sinned nor his parents but so that the works of God might be displayed in him we must work the works of him who sent me as long as it is day night is coming when no one can work

Read it out loud. Different punctuation is suggested. I suggest the following.

Jesus answered, "Neither this man sinned nor his parents; but so that the works of God might be displayed in him, we must work the works of him who sent me―as long as it is day. Night is coming when no one can work."

Jesus did not say that God determined this man to be blind so that Jesus could eventually cross his path and heal him. He said that the disciples should not look at this man as an opportunity to debate Original Sin. The man is an opportunity, rather, to work the works of God.

The meaning is similar to the Lord's point given in Mark 2:10-11 (∥ Matthew 9:6 ∥ Luke 5:24).

(NRSV)
10 But so that you may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins"—he said to the paralytic—
11 "I say to you, stand up, take your mat and go to your home."

Demonstrating Jesus' authority to forgive sins was not the reason for the man's paralysis; but that was the reason Jesus healed him.

Regarding John's account of the man born blind, several translations are acceptable with adjusted punctuation (KJV, RSV, NKJV, etc.). Most translations are somewhat misleading in that passage; but not all of them are so misleading. Here is one example of a good and clear translation:

John 9:1-4 (Contemporary English Version)
1 As Jesus walked along, he saw a man who had been blind since birth. 2 Jesus' disciples asked, “Teacher, why was this man born blind? Was it because he or his parents sinned?”

3 “No, it wasn’t!” Jesus answered. “But because of his blindness, you will see God work a miracle for him. 4 As long as it is day, we must do what the one who sent me wants me to do. When night comes, no one can work.